MCQs-Gynec-5

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A-Answer

Choose the one most appropriate answer :

1 The pudendal nerve is derived from the roots of :

A L4

B L5

C S1

D S2,S3

E S2,S3,S4

A-E

2 The main function of HCG is to :

A Induce ovulation

B Prolong corpus luteum activiy

C Suppress breakthrough ovulation

D Serve as immunological indicator of pregnancy

A-B

3 What are the ultrasound signs of imminent ovulation

A Identification of cumulus mass (1mm)

B Detachment of inner wall

C An average size of 20mm

D All of the above

A-D

4 What are the signs of ovulation on USG

A Irregular follicle wall

B Collapse of follicle

C Fluid in cul de sac

D All of the above

E None of the above

A-D

5 Common ovulation induced drugs are

A Clomiphene citrate

B Tamoxifen or the newer letrozole

C Gonadotrophins

D GnRh analogue down regulation protocols

E All of the above

A-E

6 USSR (Uterine scoring system for reproduction ) comprises following parameters :

A Endometrial thickness

B Endometrial layering

C Myometrial contractions

D Gray-scale myometrial blood flow

E All of the above

A-E

7 Aberrant follicular growth

A No increase in follicular size

B Rupture of follicles when size is 14-16mm

C Multifollicular ovary

D Ovarian functional cyst

E All of the above

A-E

8 Cervarix protects against folowing HPV strains :

A 16,18

B 45, 31

C A+B

D 6,11

E 16,18, 6, 11

A-C

9 Gardasil protects against HPV strains :

A 16,18

B 6,11

C 16,18,6,11

D 6,11

E None of the above

A-C

10 Surgical techniques for sperm retrieval from testis or epididymis incliude:

A PESA

B TESA

C MESA

D TESE

E All of the above

A-E

11 The precursors of oestriol of pregnancy mainly originate in what fetal organ :

A Pituitary

B Placenta

C Ovaries

D Liver

E Adrenal

A-E

12 Subnuclear vaculoes in the endometrial mucosa are evidence of activity of :

A Cholesterol

B Progesterone

C Pregnendiol

D Androstenendione

E Oestrogen

A-B

13 A polymorhonuclear leucocyte might have which characteristsic distinguishing it as being from a female ?

A Cytoplasmic inclusions

B Multiple nucleoli

C Hypersegmentation

D Pyknotic nucleus

E Drumsticks

A-E

14 Rete hyperplasia is important in the tissue diagnosis of :

A Granuloma inguinale

B Syphilis

C Lymphogranuloma

D Chancroid

E leukoplakia

A-C

15 Which has a greater tendency to anaplastic change :

A Hypertrophic leukoplakia

B Atrophic leukoplakia

A-A

16 Congenital angiomata of vulva usually :

A Persist

B Regress

C Grow

D Require therapy

E Become malignant

A-B

17 Hydradenoma of vulva is easily confused microscopically with :

A Leukoplakia

B Adenocarcinoma

C Codyloma

D Ulcus molle

E Fibroma

A-B

18 Exposure of female fetus to androgens may arrest differentiation of :

A Mullerian duct

B Ovary

C Urogenital sinus

D All of the above

E None of the above

A-C

19 Usually only one follicle per month develops and fails to undergo atresia because :

A The leading follicle produces steroid which inhibits the development of others

B The blood supply to the leading follicle is greater

C The leading follicle lies near the surface of the ovary

D All of the above

E None of the above

A-E

20 Failure of withdrawal bleeding following oestrogen to an amenorrheic woman indicate :

A Uterine factor

B Ovarian factor

C Pituitary factor

D Hypothalamic lesion

E Ovarian tumour

A-A

21 Next to epidermoid carcinoma , the most frequent malignant lesion of vulva is :

A Fibrosarcoma

B Adenocarcinoma

C Melanoma

D Myoblastoma

E Hidradenoma

A-C

22 the following hormone does not support the somatic growth :

A Progesterone

B Androgens

C Testosterone

D Growth hormone

E Thyroid hormone

A-A

23 The development of testes depend on the presence of :

A X chromosome

B Y chromosome

C XY pair

D XX pair

E None of the above

A-B

24 The Barr body is present in :

A Over 20% of buccal cells from males

B Over 20% of buccal cells from females

C In all cells of males

D In all cells of females

E None of the above

A-B

25 The cause of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is :

A Defect in cortisol synthesis

B defect in ACTH synthesis

C Defect in testosterone synthesis

D All of the above

E None of the above

A-A

26 When operating for metastatic ovarian cancer the reason for omentectomy is ;

A Make paracentesis easier

B Lessen recurrence of ascites

C Improve overall prognosis

D Allow circulation of radioactive materials

E To prevent adhesions

A-B

27 Endometrial sinus tumours may synthesize :

A Alkaline phosphatase

B Acid phosphatase

C Alpha fetoprotein

D Thyroxine

A-A

28 Extensive endometriosis of rectosigmoid is usually treated by :

A Hormones

B Cauterization laparoscopically

C Colpostomy

D Oophoerectomy

E Irradiation

A-D

29 Malignant change in endometrioma usually presents histologically as :

A Squamous cell epithelioma

B Adenocanthoma

C Mesothelioma

D Sarcoma

E Lymphoma

A-B

30 Which of the following is not a common finding in Arisa-Stella reaction :

A Cellular atypia

B Increased mitotic activity

C Adenocarcinoma

D Tall pale secretory cells

E Polypoidy of involved cells

A-C

31 The diagnosis of chorionepithelioma depends on histological findings of all except :

A Cytotrophoblastic growth and penetration

B Villous formation

C Coagulation necrosis of muscle

D Syncitiotrophoblastic growth
E Haemorrhage and destruction of muscle
A-B

32 A patient with known choriocarcinoma with pulmonary metastasis is
A Best treated by hysterectomy
B Best treated by lobectomy
C By external radiation of the lungs
D Incurable
E By actinomycin or methotrexate

A-E

33 Which of following is least important in semen analysis
A Sperm count
B Volume
C % of abnormal forms
D Motility of sperm
E Sperm survival time

A-E

34 Failure of semen specimen to undergo liquefaction within 20 minutes means
A Prostatitis
B Sperm count too large for plasma volume
C Proteolytic enzyme deficiency
D Large amount of dead sperms
E Poor collection technique

A-C

35 The luteal phase defect is commonly manifested by
A Sterility
B Dysmature foetus
C Feminization of the fetus
D Repeated abortions
E conenital anomalies

A-D

36 Missed abortion may be accompany by all except :
A Decreased myometrial contractility
B Regression in uterine size
C Increased oxytocin response
D Hypofibrinogenemia
E Negative pregnancy test

A-C

37 Gonadal dysgenesis is treated with
A Thyroid extract
B Cortisone
C Oestrogens
D Progesterone
E Dexamethasone

A-C

38 In menopause which change manifests latest
A insomnia
B Osteoporosis
C Flushes
D Sweats
E Dyspareunia

A-B

39 Which is the contraindication for performing Pap’s smear
A Recent douche
B Bleeding
C Early pregnancy
D Lactation
E None of the above

A-E

Answer according to the key below :

A if 1,2,3 are correct
B If 1 and 3 are correct
C If 2 and 4 are correct
D If only 4 is correct
E If all are correct

40 The superficial inguinal nodes drain the
1 Lower vagina

2 Cervix
3 Vulva
4 Upper vagina

A-B

41 The lymphatics from crevix drain to
1 External iliac nodes
2 Internal iliacs
3 Obturator nodes
4 Sacral nodes

A-E

42 Progesterone has the following function
1 Preparation of endometrium for implantation
2 Maintenance of pregnancy
3 Decreases motility of fallopian tubes
4 Quiets the uterine contractions

A-E

43 Frequent causes of rectovaginal fistula include
1 Culdoscopy
2 Cervical carcinoma
3 Tubo-ovarian abscess
4 Obstetric trauma

A-C
44 The following normal cells are present in vaginal smear
1 Squamous cells of vagina and portio of cervix
2 Endocervical cells
3 Endometrial cells
4 Histiocytes

A-E

45 The normal mature supervidial cells of vagina have the following characteristics
1Columnar
2 Large and polygonal
3 Nuclei large and eccentric
4 Nuclei small and pyknotic

A-C

46 Cancer cells in vaginal smear have the following characteristics
1 Nucleus disproportionately large
2 Mitosis very common
3 Variability in size and shape
4 Distinct cell boundaries

A-B

47 Pelvic thrombophlebitis is frequently characterised by
1 Sudden onset
2 Tempr of 103 -105 degree F
3 Few physical signs in the pelvis
4 Obviously palpable pelvic veins

A-A

48 Endometriosis is frquently found in association with
1 Myomas
2 Retroversion of uterus
3 Endometrial hyperplasia
4 Infertility

A-E
49 Bilateral oopherectomy is indicated in young woman with
1 Cystic teratoma
2 Serous cystadenoma
3 Pseudomucinous cystadenoma
4 Papilary serous cystadenoma

A-D

Case history :

The diagnosis of stage 1 carcinoma of cervix was made on a 45 year old woman.She was treated surgically and her chart contained a note that the classification was changed to stage 3 after operation :

50 The best clinical results in the treatment of invasive cancer of cervix are obtained with
A Gamma irradiation
B Beta iradiation
C Cervical amputation
D Radiomimetic drugs
E Radical hysterectomy

A-A

51 Frequent complication of adequate radical surgery for cancer cervix include

A Rectovaginal fistula
B Ureterovaginal fistula
C Vesicovaginal fistula
D None of the above
E All of the above

A-B

Case history :

A 47 year old woman had Wertheim hysterectomy 7 months ago. She now has a soft cystic mass 3-5 cms near the right pelvic wall :

52 The most likely diagnosis is :
A Recurrent carcinoma
B Diverticulum of bladder
C Pelvic lymphocyst
D Sacculation of ureter
E Pelvic abscess

A-C

53 The aetiology f this lesion is :
A Preoperative radiation
B Excess accumulation of blood post operatively
C Post operative infection
D All of the above
E None of the above

A-D

54 the most serious threat posted by this lesion is :
A Infection
B Wound dehiscence
C Ureteral obstruction
D Bowel obstruction
E Haemorrhage

A-C

References

1. Carrier guide for medical graduates : MCQ’

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