MCQs-Gynec-5

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English: Genomic structure of Human papillomav...

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English: Pathology: EM: Papilloma Virus (HPV) ...

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Uterus and uterine tubes.

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Section of the ovary of a newly born child. Ge...

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English: A pathological specimen of ovarian ca...

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A-Answer

Choose the one most appropriate answer :

1 The pudendal nerve is derived from the roots of :
A L4
B L5
C S1
D S2,S3
E S2,S3,S4
A-E
2 The main function of HCG is to :
A Induce ovulation
B Prolong corpus luteum activiy
C Suppress breakthrough ovulation
D Serve as immunological indicator of pregnancy
A-B
3 What are the ultrasound signs of imminent ovulation
A Identification of cumulus mass (1mm)
B Detachment of inner wall
C An average size of 20mm
D All of the above
A-D
4 What are the signs of ovulation on USG
A Irregular follicle wall
B Collapse of follicle
C Fluid in cul de sac
D All of the above
A-D
5 Common ovulation induced drugs are
B Tamoxifen or the newer letrozole
C Gonadotrophins
GnRh analogue down regulation protocols
E All of the above
A-E
6 USSR (Uterine scoring system for reproduction ) comprises following parameters :
A Endometrial thickness
B Endometrial layering
C Myometrial contractions
D Gray-scale myometrial blood flow
E All of the above
A-E
7 Aberrant follicular growth
A No increase in follicular size
B Rupture of follicles when size is 14-16mm
C Multifollicular ovary
D Ovarian functional cyst
E All of the above
A-E
8 Cervarix protects against folowing HPV strains :
A 16,18
B 45, 31
C A+B
D 6,11
E 16,18, 6, 11
A-C
9 Gardasil protects against HPV strains :
A 16,18
B 6,11
C 16,18,6,11
D 6,11
E None of the above
A-C
10 Surgical techniques for sperm retrieval from testis or epididymis incliude:
A PESA
B TESA
C MESA
D TESE
E All of the above
A-E
11 The precursors of oestriol of pregnancy mainly originate in what fetal organ :
A Pituitary
B Placenta
C Ovaries
D Liver
E Adrenal
A-E
12 Subnuclear vaculoes in the endometrial mucosa are evidence of activity of :
A Cholesterol
B Progesterone
C Pregnendiol
D Androstenendione
E Oestrogen
A-B
13 A polymorhonuclear leucocyte might have which characteristsic distinguishing it as being from a female ?
A Cytoplasmic inclusions
B Multiple nucleoli
C Hypersegmentation
D Pyknotic nucleus
E Drumsticks
A-E
14 Rete hyperplasia is important in the tissue diagnosis of :
A Granuloma inguinale
B Syphilis
C Lymphogranuloma
D Chancroid
E leukoplakia
A-C
15 Which has a greater tendency to anaplastic change :
A Hypertrophic leukoplakia
B Atrophic leukoplakia
A-A
16 Congenital angiomata of vulva usually :
A Persist
B Regress
C Grow
D Require therapy
E Become malignant
A-B
17 Hydradenoma of vulva is easily confused microscopically with :
B Adenocarcinoma
C Codyloma
D Ulcus molle
E Fibroma
A-B
18 Exposure of female fetus to androgens may arrest differentiation of :
C Urogenital sinus
D All of the above
E None of the above
A-C
19 Usually only one follicle per month develops and fails to undergo atresia because :
A The leading follicle produces steroid which inhibits the development of others
B The blood supply to the leading follicle is greater
C The leading follicle lies near the surface of the ovary
D All of the above
E None of the above
A-E
20 Failure of withdrawal bleeding following oestrogen to an amenorrheic woman indicate :
A Uterine factor
B Ovarian factor
C Pituitary factor
D Hypothalamic lesion
A-A
21 Next to epidermoid carcinoma , the most frequent malignant lesion of vulva is :
A Fibrosarcoma
B Adenocarcinoma
C Melanoma
D Myoblastoma
E Hidradenoma
A-C
22 the following hormone does not support the somatic growth :
A Progesterone
B Androgens
C Testosterone
D Growth hormone
E Thyroid hormone
A-A
23 The development of testes depend on the presence of :
A X chromosome
B Y chromosome
C XY pair
D XX pair
E None of the above
A-B
24 The Barr body is present in :
A Over 20% of buccal cells from males
B Over 20% of buccal cells from females
C In all cells of males
D In all cells of females
E None of the above
A-B
25 The cause of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is :
A Defect in cortisol synthesis
B defect in ACTH synthesis
C Defect in testosterone synthesis
D All of the above
E None of the above
A-A
26 When operating for metastatic ovarian cancer the reason for omentectomy is ;
A Make paracentesis easier
B Lessen recurrence of ascites
C Improve overall prognosis
D Allow circulation of radioactive materials
E To prevent adhesions
A-B
27 Endometrial sinus tumours may synthesize :
A Alkaline phosphatase
B Acid phosphatase
C Alpha fetoprotein
D Thyroxine
A-A
28 Extensive endometriosis of rectosigmoid is usually treated by :
A Hormones
B Cauterization laparoscopically
C Colpostomy
D Oophoerectomy
E Irradiation
A-D
29 Malignant change in endometrioma usually presents histologically as :
A Squamous cell epithelioma
B Adenocanthoma
C Mesothelioma
D Sarcoma
E Lymphoma
A-B
30 Which of the following is not a common finding in Arisa-Stella reaction :
A Cellular atypia
B Increased mitotic activity
C Adenocarcinoma
D Tall pale secretory cells
E Polypoidy of involved cells
A-C
31 The diagnosis of chorionepithelioma depends on histological findings of all except :
A Cytotrophoblastic growth and penetration
B Villous formation
C Coagulation necrosis of muscle

D Syncitiotrophoblastic growth
E Haemorrhage and destruction of muscle
A-B

32 A patient with known choriocarcinoma with pulmonary metastasis is
A Best treated by hysterectomy
B Best treated by lobectomy
C By external radiation of the lungs
D Incurable
E By actinomycin or methotrexate

A-E

33 Which of following is least important in semen analysis
A Sperm count
B Volume
C % of abnormal forms
D Motility of sperm
E Sperm survival time

A-E

34 Failure of semen specimen to undergo liquefaction within 20 minutes means
A Prostatitis
B Sperm count too large for plasma volume
C Proteolytic enzyme deficiency
D Large amount of dead sperms
E Poor collection technique

A-C

35 The luteal phase defect is commonly manifested by
A Sterility
B Dysmature foetus
C Feminization of the fetus
D Repeated abortions
E conenital anomalies

A-D

36 Missed abortion may be accompany by all except :
A Decreased myometrial contractility
B Regression in uterine size
C Increased oxytocin response
D Hypofibrinogenemia
E Negative pregnancy test

A-C

37 Gonadal dysgenesis is treated with
A Thyroid extract
B Cortisone
C Oestrogens
D Progesterone
E Dexamethasone

A-C

38 In menopause which change manifests latest
A insomnia
B Osteoporosis
C Flushes
D Sweats
E Dyspareunia

A-B

39 Which is the contraindication for performing Pap’s smear
A Recent douche
B Bleeding
C Early pregnancy
D Lactation
E None of the above

A-E

Answer according to the key below :

A if 1,2,3 are correct
B If 1 and 3 are correct
C If 2 and 4 are correct
D If only 4 is correct
E If all are correct

40 The superficial inguinal nodes drain the
1 Lower vagina

2 Cervix
3 Vulva
4 Upper vagina

A-B

41 The lymphatics from crevix drain to
1 External iliac nodes
2 Internal iliacs
3 Obturator nodes
4 Sacral nodes

A-E

42 Progesterone has the following function
1 Preparation of endometrium for implantation
2 Maintenance of pregnancy
3 Decreases motility of fallopian tubes
4 Quiets the uterine contractions

A-E

43 Frequent causes of rectovaginal fistula include
1 Culdoscopy
2 Cervical carcinoma
3 Tubo-ovarian abscess
4 Obstetric trauma

A-C
44 The following normal cells are present in vaginal smear
1 Squamous cells of vagina and portio of cervix
2 Endocervical cells
3 Endometrial cells
4 Histiocytes

A-E

45 The normal mature supervidial cells of vagina have the following characteristics
1Columnar
2 Large and polygonal
3 Nuclei large and eccentric
4 Nuclei small and pyknotic

A-C

46 Cancer cells in vaginal smear have the following characteristics
1 Nucleus disproportionately large
2 Mitosis very common
3 Variability in size and shape
4 Distinct cell boundaries

A-B

47 Pelvic thrombophlebitis is frequently characterised by
1 Sudden onset
2 Tempr of 103 -105 degree F
3 Few physical signs in the pelvis
4 Obviously palpable pelvic veins

A-A

48 Endometriosis is frquently found in association with
1 Myomas
2 Retroversion of uterus
3 Endometrial hyperplasia
4 Infertility

A-E
49 Bilateral oopherectomy is indicated in young woman with
1 Cystic teratoma
2 Serous cystadenoma
3 Pseudomucinous cystadenoma
4 Papilary serous cystadenoma

A-D

Case history :

The diagnosis of stage 1 carcinoma of cervix was made on a 45 year old woman.She was treated surgically and her chart contained a note that the classification was changed to stage 3 after operation :

50 The best clinical results in the treatment of invasive cancer of cervix are obtained with
A Gamma irradiation
B Beta iradiation
C Cervical amputation
D Radiomimetic drugs
E Radical hysterectomy

A-A

51 Frequent complication of adequate radical surgery for cancer cervix include

A Rectovaginal fistula
B Ureterovaginal fistula
C Vesicovaginal fistula
D None of the above
E All of the above

A-B

Case history :

A 47 year old woman had Wertheim hysterectomy 7 months ago. She now has a soft cystic mass 3-5 cms near the right pelvic wall :

52 The most likely diagnosis is :
A Recurrent carcinoma
B Diverticulum of bladder
C Pelvic lymphocyst
D Sacculation of ureter
E Pelvic abscess

A-C

53 The aetiology f this lesion is :
A Preoperative radiation
B Excess accumulation of blood post operatively
C Post operative infection
D All of the above
E None of the above

A-D

54 the most serious threat posted by this lesion is :
A Infection
B Wound dehiscence
C Ureteral obstruction
D Bowel obstruction
E Haemorrhage

A-C

References

  1. Carrier guide for medical graduates : MCQ’

9 Comments

Comments RSS
  1. Akram

    thank you for these nice questions … there are 5 pages of Qs about Gynecology and only 1 page about obstetrics , right ? are there any more?

    • bhagia

      no there are more pages about obs also , i will give you the link , thx

  2. ZAKI

    where is the link of obs mcqs ?

  3. kvssnrao

    Hello
    On individual articles there is comment block? is it so or I am not able to find it?

    • bhagia

      Yes there is a comment box on individual article , sorry for the late reply🙂

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